[Invitation] (No Subject) @ Sat Jun 21 3am – 4am ()

tuning@yahoogroups.com, you are invited to

Title: (No Subject)
Time: Sat Jun 21 3am – 4am (Timezone: Eastern Time)
Calendar:
Description: > Some crossed wires here I guess- don't figured out what Mike is doing
> here. As I mentioned before I also use very rich timbres so obviously
> whatever I'm hearing- even if it imaginary- doesn't depend on using
> sines. In fact I'd say that being tangible using all kinds of
> timbres, even only roughly harmonic ones, is a requirement. JI
> works that way and I think any kinds of radical extensions to JI or
> shadows of JI or whatever should have to, too.

A logical question here is, when we're talking about the "fields of attraction" that these noble mediants fall between, are we talking about the fields of attraction between two intervals in the just harmonic series, or rather should we be talking about the field of attraction between two intervals in the harmonic series of a timbre? I am inclined to believe the latter, though perhaps raw frequencies might play into it a bit, but I would expect that effect to be most likely if there is some nonlinear effect such as distortion on a timbre.

Actually I'm pretty sure it's the timbre, and I'm going to post some examples about it shortly.

So what I'm starting to realize about the requirement that tuning be independent of timbre is that it's a false requirement. The reason JI works is because MOST timbres are harmonic, and if they're slightly inharmonic then we're already so used to hearing that in each individual note that we still hear chords out of tune. Of course, if you mic a piano and run it through a distortion effect, even single notes will sound "out of tune" due to that effect, but for the most part, chords in real life sound fine.

But even more so, if a timbre is inharmonic then stretched octave tunings that are stretched to match that inharmonicity will sound "more in tune" than using normal JI. This is why the tuning is stretched on an acoustic piano, like we were talking about in the other thread.

Either way, trying to separate the timbre from the tuning and coming up with a tuning that will work with all timbres seems like a good idea, but I'm not sure it's going to work out all the way. Didn't someone on here mention someone who used timbres with the partials tuned to 10-tet so that 10-tet was in tune? That's sort of what I'm getting at.

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Man, i'm not sure what happened here. Sorry about this, ignore this post

On Sat, Jun 21, 2008 at 3:09 AM, Mike Battaglia <battaglia01@...> wrote:
> tuning@yahoogroups.com, you are invited to
>
> (No Subject)
>
> Sat Jun 21 3am – 4am
> (Timezone: Eastern Time)
>
> Calendar:
>
>> Some crossed wires here I guess- don't figured out what Mike is doing
>> here. As I mentioned before I also use very rich timbres so obviously
>> whatever I'm hearing- even if it imaginary- doesn't depend on using
>> sines. In fact I'd say that being tangible using all kinds of
>> timbres, even only roughly harmonic ones, is a requirement. JI
>> works that way and I think any kinds of radical extensions to JI or
>> shadows of JI or whatever should have to, too.
>
> A logical question here is, when we're talking about the "fields of
> attraction" that these noble mediants fall between, are we talking about the
> fields of attraction between two intervals in the just harmonic series, or
> rather should we be talking about the field of attraction between two
> intervals in the harmonic series of a timbre? I am inclined to believe the
> latter, though perhaps raw frequencies might play into it a bit, but I would
> expect that effect to be most likely if there is some nonlinear effect such
> as distortion on a timbre.
>
> Actually I'm pretty sure it's the timbre, and I'm going to post some
> examples about it shortly.
>
> So what I'm starting to realize about the requirement that tuning be
> independent of timbre is that it's a false requirement. The reason JI works
> is because MOST timbres are harmonic, and if they're slightly inharmonic
> then we're already so used to hearing that in each individual note that we
> still hear chords out of tune. Of course, if you mic a piano and run it
> through a distortion effect, even single notes will sound "out of tune" due
> to that effect, but for the most part, chords in real life sound fine.
>
> But even more so, if a timbre is inharmonic then stretched octave tunings
> that are stretched to match that inharmonicity will sound "more in tune"
> than using normal JI. This is why the tuning is stretched on an acoustic
> piano, like we were talking about in the other thread.
>
> Either way, trying to separate the timbre from the tuning and coming up with
> a tuning that will work with all timbres seems like a good idea, but I'm not
> sure it's going to work out all the way. Didn't someone on here mention
> someone who used timbres with the partials tuned to 10-tet so that 10-tet
> was in tune? That's sort of what I'm getting at.
> More event details»
>
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>
> You are receiving this courtesy email at the account tuning@yahoogroups.com
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