pythagorean third

paul, thanks for the response.

i have to apologize, since i shot off my mouth before checking the dictionary for a definition of 'polyphony'. but, at one time i was acquainted with some 17th century 'pop' music. besides being incredibly weird sounding to me, it didn't have more than one melodic line. so perhaps, i was overgeneralizing from limited experience.

i did tune a pythagorean third on a synthesizer with a pipe organ patch. at one time i was invited to see a
real pipe organ at a certain school, yet, when i took up the invitation, i got sent packing. anyway, the p.third had a lot of 'klang', though it got irritating after awhile; interestingly, when i tune back to the 5/4, it sounded terribly flat and dull for a spell!

i would hope that the higher calibre outfits would be way more precise than +/- 10 cents, but with modern factory strings and valved woodwinds, i would believe less would be left to chance. on the other hand, back 500 years, i can't imagine that modern precision would have existed.

unfortunately, i have 60 days to churn out and record 74 mins. for a cd, so i had to stop instrument building, and i'll have to stifle myself till i get to margo's research!

best, buzzy^

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buzzy^ wrote,

>i have to apologize, since i shot off my mouth before checking the
dictionary for a definition of 'polyphony'. but, at one time i was
>acquainted with some 17th century 'pop' music. besides being incredibly
weird sounding to me, it didn't have more than one >melodic line.

The 17th century was already the Baroque period, where modern tonality was
established. Going back to the 16th century (the Renaissance), tonality had
not yet formed, so many pieces from that period would sound far more weird
to modern ears than Baroque pieces. Finally, going back to the period we
were actually discussing, the period of medieval polyphony (~900-1450),
5-limit (triadic) harmony had not yet become part of the style, so this
music would probably sound positively alien to you.