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Re: A spelling nit - why?

🔗Rick Sanford <rsanf@xxxx.xxxx>

6/10/1999 7:03:42 AM

No. It's one p.

Fred Reinagel wrote:

> From: Fred Reinagel <violab@wny.com>
>
> Isn't *a cap(p)ella correctly spelled with two "p"s?
>
> - Fred
>
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🔗Dale Scott <adelscot@xxx.xxxx>

6/10/1999 11:46:16 AM

Hrm, I thought it was one p too, but it's 2 in the Harvard Dictionary
of Music...and also in my Italian dictionary...using the one p would
make the word, I suppose, a feminization of the word for "hair."
Many of which, it seems, we are splitting.

----------
> From: Rick Sanford <rsanf@pais.org>
>
> No. It's one p.
>
> Fred Reinagel wrote:
>
> > From: Fred Reinagel <violab@wny.com>
> >
> > Isn't *a cap(p)ella correctly spelled with two "p"s?
> >
> > - Fred

🔗Ken Fasano <kfasano@xxxxxxxxx.xxxx>

6/10/1999 11:22:16 AM

But in German it's Kapelle
in French, chapelle

-----Original Message-----
From: Dale Scott [mailto:adelscot@onr.com]
Sent: Thursday, June 10, 1999 2:46 PM
To: tuning@onelist.com
Subject: Re: [tuning] A spelling nit - why?

From: "Dale Scott" <adelscot@onr.com>

Hrm, I thought it was one p too, but it's 2 in the Harvard Dictionary
of Music...and also in my Italian dictionary...using the one p would
make the word, I suppose, a feminization of the word for "hair."
Many of which, it seems, we are splitting.

----------
> From: Rick Sanford <rsanf@pais.org>
>
> No. It's one p.
>
> Fred Reinagel wrote:
>
> > From: Fred Reinagel <violab@wny.com>
> >
> > Isn't *a cap(p)ella correctly spelled with two "p"s?
> >
> > - Fred

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