JNDs as a Function of Frequency?

Is there a pretty much accepted relationship between just-noticeable (pitch)
differences as a function of frequency? I'm mostly interested in something
based upon actual tests of real people, not just theories.

Perhaps I should have been paying more attention a few years back when Brian
McLaren was listing off psychoacoustics references and such!

--- In tuning@egroups.com, Gary Morrison <MR88CET@T...> wrote:
> Is there a pretty much accepted relationship between just-
noticeable (pitch)
> differences as a function of frequency? I'm mostly interested in
something
> based upon actual tests of real people, not just theories.
>
> Perhaps I should have been paying more attention a few years back
when Brian
> McLaren was listing off psychoacoustics references and such!

The best place to start for information like this, based of course
upon actual tests of real people, is Juan Roederer's book
_Introduction to the Physics and Psychophysics of Music_. It contains
several experimentally determined graphs of JND versus frequency,
since there are several definitions of JND. Two are the JND of
successive pitches, and the JND of successive intervals (the latter
is much smaller).