stirring the Partch pot

Haverstick here... since the Partch saga still rages on, I wanted to ask
a question of J. Szanto...and, I am truly sorry, Jon, if you already
answered this in an earlier post...a while back, you stated something
to the effect that Partch should be treated differently than any other
composer (am I close?)...why is this? After weeks of thinking about it,
I still cannot come up with one single reason why this should be so...
I would like your input to see what I am missing here...thanks, Hstick

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