RE: Correlation of Partch Limit with LCM

Marion asks
>>Would it be fair to say that the Partch's limit for a given ratio
>> is derived by enforcing octave equivalence and then taking the
>> largest odd number.
>
>Yes!
>
>> Assuming that might be true, the Partch limit of 3:4:5 would be
>> taken by octave inverting it to 4:5:6 and then calling the limit
>> 5?
>
>Sure, but why bother with octave inverting? the largest odd number in 3:4:5
>is still 5.
>
>Is a given Partch musical space defined by just one limit, or are
>more required?

As I explained in a recent post, for a chord there is the interval
limit, the utonal limit, and the otonal limit. There is no need to
rehash my discussion of the relationship between these concepts -- go
>back and read the earlier posts if you need to. A "musical space", presumably
>extending beyond one chord, is beyond the scope of this topic. Partch seems
>to be comfortable with comma adjustments during modulation, so his total
>compositional process is probably not well modeled with ratio space
>considerations (let alone most other composers).

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